Please read the following book(it's really fantastic):
"Divine Truth or Human Tradition" by Patrick Navas from which I got many of these questions.
When you honor the son as you honor the father,do you honor him as appointed king and Messiah OF God,as God's most beloved son,as the bible describes him?Or do you honor him as Almighty God,One who is the same being his father is,as the bible nowhere indicates you should?Would you call Jesus's father the only true God like Jesus did?How come Jesus is never called the only True God but distinguished his being from his father's?
Do you believe every ounce of Jesus's being was speaking when he said "No one is good but one,God" and "the father is greater than I?"If not,why not?If not,isn't that an implication of schizophrenia ,and can you show me a scripture that says he is 200 percent and the weaker 100 percent human portion overpowered the 100 percent God portion of his being?Are you SURE this isn't an inference?
If man is made in God's image,where are the other two persons in your being,each 100 % you?iIf you think that sounds nuts,think about how the trinity sounds to skeptics!
Why do trinitarians insist that Jesus being the son of God made him equal to God just because the Jews assumed this to be so?Didn't the Jews also assume he was demon possessed and breaking the sabbath?Were they really reliable people for finding truth?Didn't Jesus refute them by saying things like "I do nothing by myself","my words are not my own","ye are all gods" etc?If you believe the Jews,then you've made the word of Jesus invalid by accepting theirs.And if Jesus WAS equal to God in some way(by God's power working through His agency and in will and purpose possibly?)how would that suggest ANYTHING but that he cannot actually BE God?If you're equal to someone,are you the same "being" as that one?
Will you admit that Jesus' father is REALLY greater than him like the bible says or will you infer your own wild philosophy onto the simple truthful holy word and say only 1 of his 200 percent was talkin?
Will you respect the word and trust that God alone is wise and good or will you trust Athanasius and Tertullian and your preacher for your doctrine,even if it means heaping a preconceived fallacy on every text that distinguishes Jesus FROM GOD?
Will you accept Jesus as the Messiah and savior and son of God and appointed king and heir or will you accept him as the same being whose son he is who blessed him and gave him everything he has?
How come you say it was just a human nature inheriting something that as Almighty God he already possessed when the bible only says that Jesus,God's son through obedience and faithfulness,inherited something from his own God and father that he EARNED?
Are you implying that the 100% GOD part wasn't powerful enough to overcome the HUMAN limitations?
If Jesus is coequal why would he pretend he wasn't?Is Jesus deceptive?Why didn't he indicate that one hundred percent of the 200 percent of his person was absent from his statements of reliance and inferiority?Wouldn't this be a SERIOUS omission?
If he was God wouldn't the son of God have been deceptive language?
If God said "I am the son of God" he would be a liar,unless he's no longer just one being.
If Jesus became like his brothers in every way,does this mean they are God?If Christians have the fullness of God,does this mean they are God?If Adam had the image .or form.of God,did that mean he was God?Is Moses God,cause he was God to Pharaoh and Aaron?If not,why are these standards proof Jesus was God?
Why do trinitarians suggest that Jesus having a share of God's glory means he has to be God when Jesus indicates at John 17:22 that his followers will share in the SAME glory,suggesting the kind of glory he himself possesses,a glory afforded him as a gift from his God?And if he has it and then his disciples will,will they be in the godhead too?
And the following are from the website :
Why do Trinitarian apologists fail to mention their defender Athanasius believed "God became man so that men might become gods." ?
Why do Trinitarians suggestively imply the early Christian Tertullian had Trinitarian beliefs but refrain from disclosing that he declared the Son was inferior to the Father and also insisted there was a time when the Son was not?
Why does the Trinitarian three person God mislead his people by using the singular personal pronouns "I" and "ME"?
How do Trinitarians expect anyone to believe the shema given by God to Israel, "The LORD our God the LORD is one" was intended to mean to the Jewish people "the Lord is one substance" or "the LORD is one trio"?
Why do Trinitarians misrepresent the facts of history by claiming the Trinity issue was settled at the Council of Nicea when Arians had almost won the day 40 years later? And why do they fail to mention the Arian controversy was really ended politically by a decree of Emperor Theodosius 55 years after Nicea?
Why do Trinitarians declare the number of individuals of the "US" and "OUR" group at Genesis 1:26 to be three persons, no more, no less, without any evidence whatsoever? And why they refuse to consistently refer to God as "THEY" and "THEM"?
Why did Jesus say, "Father... this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you sent" instead of "Father... this is eternal life, that they may know Us, the only true God?"
Also of interest to a trinitarian..the following blog:
This is a MUST read :-)....thanks!