You probably won't find a question here that I haven't asked before!No,there is nothing new under the sun.:)I guess what I'm looking for are BETTER,more scripturally viable and reasonable,responses from trinitarians.Thanks.
Question # 1:In Colossians 2:9,is the fullness of God in Christ the man that of God the father,God the Son,God the Holy Spirit, or God the triune essence?If "fullness of God" means one IS God,how come Christians aren't God if they have his fullness?(Eph. 3:19)
Question # 2:How come blasphemy against the Holy Spirit is unforgivable but blasphemy against "God the Son" is,if they're coequal persons in God?And for that matter,where is God the father in this equation?Yes,how come it's only unforgivable to blaspheme against one of God's supposed three "persons" within his very "being?"(Matt. 12:31-32)
Question # 3:In 1 John 1:1-3,the "word of life" that was with God in the beginning is called an "it" as opposed to a "who" in even trinitarian bias bibles.If the Word of Life(correlating with the Word of God in John 1:1) was the pre-existing "God the Son",why and how could this be?Why and how is "God the Son" an "it" as the word in 1 John ch. 1?And if trinitarians are willing to call this "word of life" an "it" and a "which" as opposed to a "him" and a "who" (in their bias translations)in 1 John 1 then why are people like me said to be blasphemers for recognizing the same in John 1:1,as an obvious correlation?Please understand I'm not suggesting that God's word of life didn't become the man Yahushua for the life of the world when it was manifest in him.:)
Question # 4:According to Luke 1:35 ,does "Son of God" mean that Yahushua is "God the Son" OR that God is his father because the father's spirit overshadowed a virgin womb,causing the conception of a Son?If the latter be the case,then why must it be that "Son of God" means "God the Son"?And if the Holy Spirit is the one who overshadowed Mary,then how come He isn't the father of Yahushua?(given that scripture says that that is in fact WHY God is the father of His Son)
Question # 5:How come God the father knows the day and the hour but "God the Son" and "God the Holy spirit" don't?If "God the Holy Spirit" is coequal with "God the father" and "God the Son" as well as equally omniscient,shouldn't he and the Son at least know the day and hour along with the father?(Matt 24:36)
Question # 6:How can you claim Christ is omniscient if he didn't know the day nor the hour and had to grow in knowledge from his birth on?(Luke 2:52)How can trinitarians claim that Christ is God because he has all the attributes of God if he doesn't have all the attributes of God(like omniscience) and had to be given everything he does have?(Rev. 1:1,Jn. 5:19)
Question # 7:Does Hebrews 1:2 communicate that God spoke AS Yahushua in the last days or that he spoke THROUGH Yahushua?If it was the father that spoke through Christ,then wouldn't that mean that it was that same father that spoke through the prophets?How come "God the Son" isn't said to have spoken through the prophets?Does 2 Corinthians 5:19 communicate that God WAS Christ reconciling the world unto himself or that he was IN Christ reconciling the world unto himself?And who was in Christ?God the father?God the Son?God the Holy Spirit?All three?Can you demonstrate it was anyone BUT God the father in Christ by means of his own spirit?
Question # 8:Does Yahushua have an "ontological right" as the second person of a triune essence to inherit a kingdom?Or is he heir to a Kingdom because he obeyed his own God who made him firstborn heir because of his obedience and faithfulness as the Last Adam TO the One God?(Phil. 2:8,9)If Yahushua created the angels,why does he need an exaltation and inheritance to be greater than them?(Heb. 1:8,9)If he IS God,same question.If he WERE God,shouldn't Hebrews 1:9 have said that because Christ is God,he is better than the angels instead of that because he *obeyed* God that he was *made* that way by a special anointing and exaltation?Does the God of Abraham,Isaac, and Jacob have a God and an inheritance from someone he calls "greater"?(Jn. 14:28,Acts 3:13)The glorified servant of Yahuwah IS that same being of Yahuwah whom one person of Yahuwah glorified?
Question # 9:In 1 Cor. 2:11,the spirit of God is compared to the spirit of man.Is the spirit of man a separate person in his very being?If not,then how can man's spirit possibly in any capacity whatsoever be compared to God's?When man's spirit "searches" or "grieves" would it mean the spirit of man is a separate person within man's being or would it be personification?
Question # 10:If God had to become a man and dwell amongst men to demonstrate his love,then what would this say about the father's love and the Holy Spirit's love?